Guns guns guns
Posted: Tue Oct 06, 2015 9:49 pm
Too many people quote this alone: "the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
They forget context, history and sanity.
Historically it's only since the late 1970's that the 2A was interpreted as a right for citizens to bear arms. That was because the NRA leadership about that time was overthrown and a more rampant extremist group took leadership. This group pushed forth the concept of unrestricted arms for people. Prior that, it has always been looked at in context rather than in isolation. Even the very first part of the 2nd amendment is now rarely quoted.
Contextually the 2A is about ensuring that the states and congress have access to, and what roles and powers the States and Congress have, with respect to a militia.
Sanity wise, no one would suggest that because the constitution also contains: "The Congress shall have Power To ...provide for organizing, arming... ", then interpret that along with the 2A to mean, that congress should also pay for and give the people arms.
So let's have a look at the texts without isolation or cherry picking.
2nd Amendment:
"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
The Congress shall have Power To ...provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the Militia, and for governing such Part of them as may be employed in the Service of the United States, reserving to the States respectively, the Appointment of the Officers, and the Authority of training the Militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress....
ARTICLE I, SECTION 8, CLAUSE 16
The Congress shall have Power To ...provide for calling forth the Militia to execute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections and repel Invasions....
ARTICLE I, SECTION 8, CLAUSE 15
It's pretty clear that the 2a interpretation of late currently being pushed, is a severe corruption of the intent.
If Congress wants all firearms owners trained, the States have an obligation to train them in the manner Congress asks. Very clear cut. Congress has the power to arm the militia and govern them. So they also get to decide what the public can own, which they have done in the past. See fully automatic weapons as an example.
So what the fuss is about is that too many people appear either ignorant of the constitution and their rights or just don't like what they read and want to ignore the parts they disagree with.
So let's dispel the biggest garbage first.
1) The idea that the 2A was intended to prevent a tyrannical government.
Response: complete and utter bullshit with some horseshit on the side.
The constitution explicitly defines the roles of both the States and Congress for training, disciplining, organizing, arming and ordering the militia to suit Congress's desire. No if's or buts. It is explicit. So the notion that the 2A is there to prevent a tyrannical government is complete opposition to the constitution. The same constitution they use to claim rights they don't have.
Bottom line is if you argue that it is your 2A to bear arms to prevent a government from overpowering the people, then you are a complete hypocrite and liar, or are completely ignorant of the relevant portions of the constitution regarding this issue. I can also add delusional but I don't want to get personal. lol
They forget context, history and sanity.
Historically it's only since the late 1970's that the 2A was interpreted as a right for citizens to bear arms. That was because the NRA leadership about that time was overthrown and a more rampant extremist group took leadership. This group pushed forth the concept of unrestricted arms for people. Prior that, it has always been looked at in context rather than in isolation. Even the very first part of the 2nd amendment is now rarely quoted.
Contextually the 2A is about ensuring that the states and congress have access to, and what roles and powers the States and Congress have, with respect to a militia.
Sanity wise, no one would suggest that because the constitution also contains: "The Congress shall have Power To ...provide for organizing, arming... ", then interpret that along with the 2A to mean, that congress should also pay for and give the people arms.
So let's have a look at the texts without isolation or cherry picking.
2nd Amendment:
"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
The Congress shall have Power To ...provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the Militia, and for governing such Part of them as may be employed in the Service of the United States, reserving to the States respectively, the Appointment of the Officers, and the Authority of training the Militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress....
ARTICLE I, SECTION 8, CLAUSE 16
The Congress shall have Power To ...provide for calling forth the Militia to execute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections and repel Invasions....
ARTICLE I, SECTION 8, CLAUSE 15
It's pretty clear that the 2a interpretation of late currently being pushed, is a severe corruption of the intent.
If Congress wants all firearms owners trained, the States have an obligation to train them in the manner Congress asks. Very clear cut. Congress has the power to arm the militia and govern them. So they also get to decide what the public can own, which they have done in the past. See fully automatic weapons as an example.
So what the fuss is about is that too many people appear either ignorant of the constitution and their rights or just don't like what they read and want to ignore the parts they disagree with.
So let's dispel the biggest garbage first.
1) The idea that the 2A was intended to prevent a tyrannical government.
Response: complete and utter bullshit with some horseshit on the side.
The constitution explicitly defines the roles of both the States and Congress for training, disciplining, organizing, arming and ordering the militia to suit Congress's desire. No if's or buts. It is explicit. So the notion that the 2A is there to prevent a tyrannical government is complete opposition to the constitution. The same constitution they use to claim rights they don't have.
Bottom line is if you argue that it is your 2A to bear arms to prevent a government from overpowering the people, then you are a complete hypocrite and liar, or are completely ignorant of the relevant portions of the constitution regarding this issue. I can also add delusional but I don't want to get personal. lol